Alphabet before words: Difference between revisions

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Before God could use the words "Let there be light" <ref>{{bgw| Ge 1:3 }}¶  And God said, Let there be light: and there was light.</ref> <ref>יהי אור</ref>, he had to form the alphabet.  
Before God could use the words "Let there be light" <ref>{{bgw| Ge 1:3 }}¶  And God said, Let there be light: and there was light.</ref> <ref>יהי אור</ref>, he had to form the alphabet.  
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Could he have spoken without an alphabet? God could do anything he wants, but why would he? The alphabet is foundation to his revelation of himself to man. We can demonstrate that both Paul <ref>{{bgw| Eph 1:4 }} According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love:</ref> and John <ref>{{bgw| Eph 1:4 }} According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love: </ref>were familiar with the plan God had before he created. <ref group="q">How would Paul and John know God's plan before the beginning?</ref> <ref group="a">Either they knew it from scripture, the alphabet, of God gave them special facts as a small taste of omniscience. Can you find their knowledge in the scripture?  No?  In the alphabet?  Yes.  Then why would we need to presuppose they got special propositional facts?</ref>
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The bride is indicated by the zayin ז, and the lamb slain by the qof ק. Since it is plausible that the alphabet precedes the use of words, there is no reason to presume other sorts of 'revelation' that only serve as seeds of doubt with no basis in scripture.
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:Could he have spoken without an alphabet? God could do anything he wants, but why would he?  We can demonstrate that both Paul and John were familiar with the plan God had before he created. <ref group="q">How would Paul and John know God's plan before the beginning?</ref> <ref group="a">Either they knew it from scripture, the alphabet, of God gave them special facts as a small taste of omniscience. Can you find their knowledge in the scripture?  No?  In the alphabet?  Yes.  Then why would we need to presuppose they got special propositional facts?</ref>
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Revision as of 14:24, 13 September 2022

Alphabet before words [∞]


Discussion

Before God could use the words "Let there be light" [1] [2], he had to form the alphabet.

  1. ↑ ▸ ± Ge 1:3 ¶ And God said, Let there be light: and there was light.
  2. ↑ יהי אור

Could he have spoken without an alphabet? God could do anything he wants, but why would he? The alphabet is foundation to his revelation of himself to man. We can demonstrate that both Paul [1] and John [2]were familiar with the plan God had before he created. [q 1] [a 1]

  1. ↑ ▸ ± Eph 1:4 According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love:
  2. ↑ ▸ ± Eph 1:4 According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love:

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Discussion

Questions

  1. ↑ How would Paul and John know God's plan before the beginning?

Vocabulary


Answers

  1. ↑ Either they knew it from scripture, the alphabet, of God gave them special facts as a small taste of omniscience. Can you find their knowledge in the scripture? No? In the alphabet? Yes. Then why would we need to presuppose they got special propositional facts?
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